Top Questions and Answers

Ask your question and an employment lawyer in Ontario, BC or Alberta will answer in minutes

FOR EMPLOYEES
FOR EMPLOYERS




Note, your name, city and email is not displayed on the website. It is used to notify you that we have answered your question.


I have been working for the same company for almost 7 years. I initially started in a Canadian department where the hours of work were 7.5 hours M-Th and 5 hours Friday. If one wanted to take a Friday off, the company required you to use a full vacation day (but you still only received pay for the 30 hours worked and 5 hours vacation pay). However, we were able to work lieu time and use that time to take a Friday off without having to use a full vacation day. A few years ago, I and six of my colleagues moved to an American department. We still only work 35 hours per week (the Americans work 40) and the Americans are not allowed to work lieu time, so that was taken away from us, too. My manager had a conversation with ONE of the seven of us about accounting for time, so that she would not have to burn a full vacation day for a Friday. Most of the rest of us kept to the same scheudle (7.5 hrs M-Th and 5 hours Friday) one of us changed to a four day week and I modified my schedule to a 7.75 M-Th and a 4 hour Friday.) After three years, and everyone recording time slightly differently, my manager has now come back and told us that a vacation day is 7 hours (although none of us have ever worked a 7-hour 5-day week) and we can now use a half day on Friday (and flex our time to accommodate a total of 35 hours). Can they unilaterally change what constitutes a vacation day? they are not requiring us to change out schedule. We can all still work the schedule we are working. We just have to make up any time over 7 hours on some other work day (which means all of us will have to make up at least a 0.5 hour of work any time we take a day off). Can they unilaterally change the value of a vacation day like this?
Previous Next
Page 136 of 1631